STAT 200 – Introductory Statistics
February 7, 2026
Let \(X\) be a random variable with mean \(\mu\) and finite variance \(\sigma^2\). Let us draw a random sample of size \(n\) from this distribution.
Then, the distribution of the sample sums converges to a Normal distribution as \(n\) gets larger. Specifically,
\[ \sum_{i=1}^n X_i \overset{d}{\longrightarrow} \text{Normal}(n\mu, n\sigma^2). \]
The proof of this theorem is beyond the scope of this course. It is first proven in MATH 321: Mathematical Statistics I.
The Central Limit Theorem (CLT) tells us the following:
Let \(X \sim \text{Uniform}(a, b)\). Use the Central Limit Theorem to estimate the distribution of the sum of a sample of size \(n\).
By the CLT,
\[ T \sim \text{Normal}(n\mu, n\sigma^2). \]
From our knowledge of the Uniform distribution, this means
\[ T \sim \text{Normal} \left( n\left(\frac{a + b}{2}\right), n\left(\frac{(b - a)^2}{12} \right) \right) \]
Let \(X \sim \text{Exponential}(\lambda)\). Use the Central Limit Theorem to estimate the distribution of the sum of a sample of size \(n\).
By the CLT,
\[ T \sim \text{Normal}(n\mu, n\sigma^2). \]
From our knowledge of the Exponential distribution, this means
\[ T \sim \text{Normal} \left( n\left(\frac{1}{\lambda}\right), n\left(\frac{1}{\lambda^2} \right) \right) \]
Let \(X \sim \text{Binomial}(n, p)\). Use the Central Limit Theorem to approximate the distribution of \(X\).
Note that the Binomial is just the sum of \(n\) independent Bernoulli distributions. That is, if \(Y_i \sim \text{Bernoulli}(p)\), then \(Y_i \sim \text{Binomial}(1, p)\) and,
\[ X = \sum_{i = 1}^n Y_i \sim \text{Binomial}(n, p). \]
Thus, by the Central Limit Theorem, we know
\[ X \sim \text{Normal}(np, np(1-p)). \]
Let \(X\) be a random variable with mean \(\mu\) and finite variance \(\sigma^2\). Let us draw a random sample of size \(n\) from this distribution.
Then, the distribution of the sample mean is
\[ \overline{X}_n \overset{d}{\longrightarrow} \text{Normal} \left( \mu, \frac{1}{n} \sigma^2 \right) \]
Proof: From the Central Limit Theorem, we know
\[ \sum_{i=1}^n X_i \sim \text{Normal}(n\mu, n\sigma^2). \]
Thus,
\[ \overline{X}_n = \frac{1}{n} \sum_{i=1}^n X_i \sim \text{Normal} \left(\mu, \frac{1}{n} \sigma^2 \right) \]
Proof of Expectation:
\[ \begin{aligned} \mathbb{E}(\overline{X}_n) &= \mathbb{E}\left(\dfrac{1}{n} T\right) \\ &= \dfrac{1}{n} \mathbb{E}(T) \\ &= \dfrac{1}{n} \left( n\mu \right) \\ &= \mu \end{aligned} \]
Proof of Variance:
\[ \begin{aligned} \mathbb{V}(\overline{X}_n) &= \mathbb{V}\left(\dfrac{1}{n} T\right) \\ &= \dfrac{1}{n^2} \mathbb{V}(T) \\ &= \dfrac{1}{n^2} \left( n\sigma^2 \right) \\ &= \dfrac{1}{n} \sigma^2 \end{aligned} \]
Before we move onto examples, I want to make an important distinction.
The Central Limit Theorem describes the behavior of the sample mean, not the sample values!
The sample values will stay in whatever distribution the population takes. The sample means will approach Normality.
It is a subtle difference, but a very important one.
I draw a sample of size \(n = 14\) from a population with mean \(\mathbb{E}(X) = 126\) and variance \(\mathbb{V}(X) = 42\). What is the approximate distribution of the sample means?
I have been told that the average adult height for males in the United States has mean \(\mu = 69\) inches and standard deviation \(\sigma = 3\) inches. What is the probability of having the mean of a sample of size \(2\) being less than \(65\) inches?
I have been told that the average adult height for males in the United States has mean \(\mu = 69\) inches and standard deviation \(\sigma = 3\) inches. What is the probability of having the mean of a sample of size \(10\) being less than \(65\) inches?
The 2000 violent crime rate for the \(50\) states (and the District of Columbia) are given in the data file crime. What is a \(95\%\) central confidence interval for the mean violent crime rate?
We could also estimate the confidence interval from the data. This process is called “bootstrapping”, and here is the code:
This gives a \(95\%\) confidence interval of 380 to 510.
Question: Why is there a difference between the two confidence intervals?
Let \(X \sim \text{Binomial}(n, p)\) be a random sample of size \(n\) from Bernoulli random variables.
Then, the distribution of the sample proportion is
\[ P = \dfrac{1}{n} X \overset{d}{\longrightarrow} \text{Normal} \left( p, \dfrac{p(1-p)}{n} \right) \]
Proof: From the Central Limit Theorem, we know
\[ X \sim \text{Normal}(np, np(1-p)). \]
Thus,
\[ \begin{gathered} \mathbb{E}(P) = \mathbb{E}\left(\dfrac{X}{n}\right) = \dfrac{\mathbb{E}(X)}{n} = \dfrac{np}{n} = p, \\ \mathbb{V}(P) = \mathbb{V}\left(\dfrac{X}{n}\right) = \dfrac{\mathbb{V}(X)}{n^2} = \dfrac{np(1-p)}{n^2} = \dfrac{p(1-p)}{n}. \end{gathered} \]
So we have: \[ P \sim \text{Normal} \left( p, \frac{p(1-p)}{n} \right). \]
According to the US Census, \(18\%\) of Americans are below the poverty line. If I randomly sample \(n = 10\) people from the United States, what is the probability that more than \(20\%\) of them are below the poverty line?
According to the US Census, \(18\%\) of Americans are below the poverty line. If I randomly sample \(n = 100\) people from the United States, what is the probability that more than \(20\%\) of them are below the poverty line? ## Example #3: Much More Poverty
According to the US Census, \(18\%\) of Americans are below the poverty line. If I randomly sample \(n = 1000\) people from the United States, what is the probability that more than \(20\%\) of them are below the poverty line?
According to the US Census, \(18\%\) of Americans are below the poverty line. If I randomly sample \(n = 10000\) people from the United States, what is the probability that more than \(20\%\) of them are below the poverty line?